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General Pharmacology

General Pharmacology

(1) A patient is administered a drug that follows first order kinetics and has a half-life of 08 hours. A peak serum level obtained after a single I.V. bolus dose of 200 mg is 16 μg/ml. After 24 hrs, serum level is expected to be:

(2) A patient develops anaphylactic shock after penicillin injection. He is given 1/M adrenaline which restores BP and reverses bronchoconstriction induced by histamine, by acting as:

(3) A 40 year old man undergoing abdominal surgery was given suxamethonium as an adjunct to general anesthesia but the patient develops prolonged muscle paralysis. What is the possible reason:

(4) A 50 years old female was taking propranolol for the last two years. Her physician switches her to an ACE inhibitor. Two days later she was received in emergency with acute attack of angina. Which of the following may be most likely cause:

(5) Drug Z is given by constant intravenous infusion to a patient with ventricular arrhythmias. The elimination half-life for drug Z is 3.5 hours. When do you expect to achieve 90% of the predicted steady-state level in plasma:

(6) In the presence of a competitive antagonist, the dose-response curve of an agonist is shifted:

(7) A patient is given a non-competitive irreversible antagonist followed by administration of increasing doses of agonist. In the presence of the non-competitive irreversible antagonist, the agonist’s:

(8) Professorial faculty of Pharmacology department of a Medical College has invented a new drug for the treatment of glaucoma. They have classified this drug as parasympathomimetic. Their research mostly would have involved which receptors:

(9) A patient is given a drug A, and a response occurs. Next day he is given drug B and a response occurs that is less than that of drug A. Next time he was co-administered both the drug A and B. The response produced by drug A is diminished. Drug A & Drug B are, respectively:

(10) A patient shows rapidly diminishing responsiveness after a few administrations of a drug at frequent intervals. This phenomenon is called:

(11) A patient shows a qualitatively abnormal harmful response to a drug which is unpredictable, not related with dose and is not related with immune system. It is thought to be because of genetic predisposition. This is called:

(12) Which of the following factors will determine the number of drug-receptor complexes formed:

(13) To calculate the loading dose of a drug, when the desired steady state concentration and bioavailability is known, what would one need to know:

(14) Most of the drugs are absorbed from GIT after oral administration by the process of passive diffusion. The transmembrane permeation of drugs through this process is inversely related to which of the following:

(15) A patient has to take a larger dosage of drug A compared to drug B although both drugs have the same mechanism of action and produce identical responses of equal intensity when proper doses are given. This is probably because the two drugs have different:

(16) A new drug is being evaluated in a multicentre study involving 1800 subjects recruited by collaborating with different GPs from their patient base. What kind of trial is this most likely to be:

(17) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being treated with theophylline by i.v. infusion. What fraction of the eventual steady-state level will be achieved after a time equal to two (2) plasma half-lives from the start of the infusion:

(18) The two state receptor theory is the only receptor theory that can be used to adequately explain the actions of which of the following:

(19) Which of the following pharmacokinetic values most reliably reflects the total amount of drug reaching the target tissue after oral administration:

(20) Which of the following parameter is calculated as the ratio of the area under the plasma concentration versus time curve (AUC) obtained by oral administration vs. The AUC after intravenous administration of the same drug:

(21) We start intravenous infusion of a drug using an infusion pump to ensure that the rate of drug delivery is constant over time. What one factor determines how long it will take for the drug to reach a steady-state concentration (Css) in the blood:

(22) After binding to a proteinaceous membrane carrier, drugs are transported across the body membranes against the concentration gradient with the expenditure of cellular energy, where they are released.This process is called:

(23) Lipid-soluble xennobiotics are commonly biotransformed by oxidation in the microsomal mixed-function oxidase system. The component that provides reducing equivalents for the enzyme system:

(24) For which of the following drug formulations by different manufacturers, there are significant differences in bioavailability after oral administration:

(25) When a drug is administered as a solid oral dosage form, the first process which occurs and which also determines the absorption and ultimate therapeutic response is:

(26) An Anti-muscarinic drug is administered intravenously. Passive reabsorption from tubular urine (pH = 05) of this drug could be reduced if the drug is:

(27) Esmolol is being given by continuous intravenous infusion to a patient to control his blood pressure If the rate of infusion of the drug is doubled, what response in the steady state concentration would be expected:

(28) To calculate the loading dose of a drug, when the desired steady state plasma concentration and bioavailability is known, what would one need to know:

(29) A patient is administered an anticholinergic drug that follows first order kinetics and has a half-life of 08 hours. A peak serum level obtained after a single I.V bolus dose of 200mg is 16μg/ml. After 24 hr, serum level is expected to be:

(30) Most of the autonomic receptors like muscarinic cholinergic receptors & all adrenergic receptors belong to G protein coupled family of receptors. Autonomic drugs produce their effects by binding with these receptors. Which of the following descriptions relating to G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) is Unlikely to be true:

(31) Propranolol is a non selective beta blocker. When it si given orally, it undergoes substantial 1st pass metabolism. What is the meant by the “first pass effect”:

(32) Adrenaline is a life saving drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis. Reversal of histamine induced bronchospasm and vasodilation by adrenaline is due to:

(33) Azithromycin, an antibiotic, has an apparent volume of distribution (Vd) of approximately 30 L/kg. The correct interpretation of this information is that azithromycin is which of the following:

(34) The action of the ultra short-action barbiturates when used as i/v anesthetic is terminated primarily by the process of:

(35) A patient is being administered a drug that exhibits a saturated elimination process (zero order kinetics). This means that:

(36) The maximum effect (E max) achieved by a drug is a measure of its:

(37) Lipid-soluble drugs cross the membrane at a rate that is function of their concentration gradient across the membrane and the lipid: water partition coefficient of the drug. This type of transmembrane permeation involves:

(38) Hepatotoxicity with high doses of paracetamol occurs when which of the following endogenous substanceis depleted:

(39) Hepatic biotransformation reactions that unmask or introduce a functional group (OH,NH2, or SH) are known as:

(40) Most of the drugs are absorbed by the process of passive diffusion of lipid soluble form of the drug. Which of the following forms of a drug is lipid soluble:

(41) An Antimuscarinic drug is administered intravenously. Passive reabsorption from tubular urine (pH = 05) of this drug could be reduced if the drug is:

(42) Which of the following properties is not considered a physiological variable, which can affect drug absorption and distribution:

(43) A 63 yrs old patient in intensive care unit requires infusion of procainamide. Its half life is 2 hrs. The infusion is began at 9 AM. What % of steady state plasma conc. will be reached at 3 pm on the same day:

(44) If the dose response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated from each other on the dose axis, the drug is highly:

(45) Graded and quantel dose response curves are useful for drug evaluation in animal models/ experimental animals. Which of the following statements best describes quantal dose response curve:

(46) Esmolol is being given by continuous intravenous infusion to a patient to control his blood pressure If the rate of infusion of the drug is doubled, what response in the steady state concentration would be expected:

(47) A beta adrenergic blocking drug is administered to a patient repeatedly at an interval of every two half lives of the drug. Plateau concentrations in the circulation will be attained after the:

(48) The first dose of prazosin produces an exaggerated hypotensive response that can result in syncope. This adverse effect is commonly termed as:

(49) A 63 yrs old patient in intensive care unit requires infusion of procainamide. Its half life is 2 hrs. The infusion is began at 9 AM. What % of steady state plasma concentration will be reached at 3 pm on the same day:

(50) If the dose response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated from each other on the dose axis, the drug is highly:

(51) The elimination of a drug & its numerous metabolites is described as being heavily dependent on phase II metabolic reactions. Which of the following is a phase II reaction:

(52) Therapeutic window is a clinically useful parameter to determine the safety margin of a drug. It is calculated as a ratio of:

(53) The phenomenon where a drug binds to the same receptors and blocks the effects of other drug is called:

(54) A new drug was tested in an in vitro system. It was found that only one enantiomer of racemic pair binds substantially to a specific receptors, where as the other enantiomer showed a negligible binding. Which of the following best defines this property:

(55) An antihypertensive drug is being given to a patient by constant I/V infusion. If the rate of infusion of this drug is doubled, what response in the steady state plasma concentration would be expected:

(56) A non-volatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On I/V injection it produces general anesthesia only for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action leading to very short duration of action:

(57) The most commonly occurring conjugation reaction for drugs / their metabolites in the body is:

(58) If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg / hr at a steady state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is:

(59) If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination , its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its:

(60) Genetic differences in hepatic N-acetylaiton of drugs must be considered when starting treatment with which of the following drugs:

(61) Which of the following is not a possible consequence of phase I or nonsynthetic, biotransformation reactions:

(62) In an anesthetized dog, repeated intravenous injection of ephedrine at short intervals shows that the response diminishes rapidly with every successive injection. This phenomenon is termed as:

(63) In the presence of a competitive antagonist, the dose-response curve of an agonist is shifted to:

(64) Which of the following most accurately describes the trans membrane signalling process involved in the action of insulin:

(65) Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine and Histamine are important neurotransmitter agonists. When these ligands interact with their cellular receptors, how do they mainly elicit their responses:

(66) Isoniazid, an Anti TB drug is metabolized by N-acetylation and the population can be divided into fast & slow acetylators. This variation in drug metabolism can be due to:

(67) A 16 years old girl suffering from seasonal rhinitis started a therapy with loratidine an anti-histamine. Which of the following term best describes the intrinsic ability of a drug to bind with receptors:

(68) A 65 year old women admitted to a hospital with myocardial infarction develops ventricular tachycardia and received an IV injection of lidocaine. The cardiologist knew that the dose given must be within the range of doses that have high probability of therapeutic success. Which of the following term best defines the therapeutic range:

(69) Atropine is useful as antidote of choice in the treatment of organophosphate insecticide poisoning and on exposure to war gases; because it:

(70) If the total amount of a drug given to a patient by single I/V bolus injection is 2.0 gram and its plasma concentration is 25μg/ml,What would be its volume of distribution:

(71) Enterohepatic recycling increases the bioavailability of drugs. Which of the following drugs can interfere with E/H recycling and can lead to therapeutic failure by decreasing the bioavailability of the affected drug:

(72) Pharmacokinetics of Aspirin, Phenytoin and Alcohol shifts from 1st order to Zero order on repeated administration/in high dose range and risk of toxicity is disproportionately increased. In zero order kinetic there is disproportionate increase in plasma concentration of drug because:

(73) Which of the following clinical situations in a patient, is unlikely to increase the half-life of a drug: